Appendix 1: Self-Tests

This chapter contains all of the Self-Tests in a text format. Answers can be found in Appendix 2: Self-Test Answer Keys.

Self-Test 1

Found in Competency D1, Learning Task 1

Self-Test 1

  1. Which of the following choices does the SSR (Sewerage System Regulation) not address?
    1. Lagoons
    2. Type 1 septic systems
    3. Holding tanks and privies
    4. Type 2 and 3 septic systems
  2. Which of the following is not allowed to plan, install, or maintain a sewerage system in British Columbia?
    1. A plumber
    2. An ROWP
    3. A professional
    4. An authorized person
  3. Which of the following is a designation of ROWP that is not addressed in the SSR?
    1. Planner
    2. Installer
    3. Private Inspector
    4. Maintenance Provider
  4. The SSR expects what quality of water from the septic system by the time it reaches the limiting layer?
    1. Useable
    2. Potable
    3. Seasonal
    4. Recreational
  5. In which part of a sewerage system are anaerobic bacteria mainly found?
    1. The field piping
    2. The septic tank
    3. The distribution box
    4. The house plumbing
  6. In which part of a sewerage system are aerobic bacteria mainly found?
    1. The field piping
    2. The septic tank
    3. The distribution box
    4. The house plumbing
  7. Which of the following indicates sewage strength and represents the total amount of oxygen, in mg/L, used by microorganisms in decomposing one litre of organic matter in a 5-day period?
    1. ASTTBC
    2. BOD5
    3. SPM
    4. TSS
  8. Which of the following is not included in the scope of the SSR?
    1. Duplexes
    2. Single family dwellings
    3. 2 houses on a single parcel of land
    4. Houses discharging > 22700 litres/day
  9. What does “areas used to receive effluent discharged from a treatment method” describe?
    1. Disposal areas
    2. Dispersal areas
    3. Discharge areas
    4. Displacement areas
  10. Which of the following is considered the most difficult and complex factor in choosing an appropriate dispersal method?
    1. A soil analysis
    2. A cost analysis
    3. A property survey
    4. Equipment availability

Self-Test 2

Found in Competency D1, Learning Task 1

Self-Test 2

  1. A septic tank, distribution box and dispersal field is known as what type of system?
    1. Type 1
    2. Type 2
    3. Type 3
    4. Type 4
  2. All prefabricated septic tanks must be constructed to standards found in what document?
    1. CAN/CSA B149.1
    2. CAN/CSA B66-00
    3. BC Plumbing Code
    4. National Plumbing Code of Canada
  3. Which one of the following choices is not a “layer” associated with the contents of a septic tank?
    1. Scum
    2. Sludge
    3. Septics
    4. Effluent
  4. What component is fitted to the baffle at the outlet of a septic tank that prevents large particles from leaving the tank and passing into the dispersal system?
    1. A float switch
    2. A screen
    3. A sieve
    4. A filter
  5. What is the term given to the act of flooding the dispersal field with a high flow rate of effluent from the primary treatment component?
    1. Dosing
    2. Saturation
    3. Evacuation
    4. Bombardment
  6. Aerobic treatment units (ATUs) produce effluent that is typically categorized as what type?
    1. Type 1
    2. Type 2
    3. Type 3
    4. Type 4
  7. Which one of the following choices would use a distribution box?
    1. At Grade system
    2. Pressure distribution
    3. Alberta At Grade system
    4. Trickling or gravity distribution
  8. What can be installed in the pipe outlets of a distribution box to ensure that the invert openings are all at the same elevation, thereby allowing equal flow to all the laterals?
    1. Speed levelers
    2. Quick openings
    3. Pipe invert rotators
    4. Elevation equalizers
  9. What component is fitted to both septic tanks and distribution boxes to allow easy entry and assist in periodic maintenance and inspection without the need for excavating?
    1. Ladders
    2. Access risers
    3. Inspection ports
    4. Egress openings
  10. What is the width of the bottom of a typical Type 1 distribution trench?
    1. 12–18 inches
    2. 15–30 inches
    3. 18–36 inches
    4. 48–84 inches
  11. What type of bacteria are at work in a dispersal system, that render the effluent harmless to people and the environment?
    1. E. coli
    2. Aerobic
    3. Anaerobic
    4. Legionella
  12. Which type of dispersal system may suffer from plugging of the first few feet or metres of the laterals over time?
    1. Subsurface distribution
    2. Pressure distribution
    3. Trickling
    4. Dosing
  13. What device turns a dosing pump on and off?
    1. A float switch
    2. A manual switch
    3. A moisture meter
    4. In infrared scanner
  14. Which of the following types of dispersal systems would be well suited for smaller urban lots that may not have enough space for a conventional septic field?
    1. Pressure distribution
    2. Trickling gravity
    3. Dosed gravity
    4. Lagoon
  15. Which type of system uses premanufactured plastic chambers for the dispersal of effluent?
    1. At Grade
    2. Sand mound
    3. Gravelless Infiltrator®
    4. Subsurface drip dispersal
  16. What type of dispersal system uses a trench that is more than 90 cm but less than 3 m wide?
    1. Trench
    2. Seepage bed
    3. Subsurface drip
    4. Pressure distribution
  17. What is the process known as whereby water is lost from small openings in the leaves of plants and grasses?
    1. Respiration
    2. Perspiration
    3. Evaporation
    4. Transpiration
  18. Which of the following uses wood chips in its construction?
    1. Gravity distribution
    2. Alberta At Grade
    3. ETA bed
    4. ET bed
  19. Which of the following systems must be fenced?
    1. ETA bed
    2. Alberta At Grade
    3. Pressure distribution
    4. BC Zero Discharge Lagoon
  20. Which of the following is a system that treats and disperses wastewater in the same footprint?
    1. ETA
    2. HLR
    3. CTDS
    4. ROWP

Self-Test 3

Found in Competency D1, Learning Task 2

Self-Test 3

  1. Which one of the following processes separates silt and plastics from the wastewater?
    1. Sludge treatment
    2. Tertiary treatment
    3. Primary treatment
    4. Secondary treatment
  2. Which one of the following treatments uses biological processes that break down the organic waste by using nutrients provided in the raw sewage?
    1. Sludge
    2. Tertiary
    3. Primary
    4. Secondary
  3. Which one of the following choices represents a final process that municipal sewage may have to undergo to ensure that aquatic life in the final destination of the wastewater will not be harmed?
    1. Chlorination
    2. De-chlorination
    3. UV Sterilization
    4. Ozone disinfection
  4. Which one of the following processes uses anaerobic digesters, with the production of methane gas as a main by-product?
    1. Sludge treatment
    2. Tertiary treatment
    3. Primary treatment
    4. Secondary treatment
  5. What is the common destination for the waste sludge obtained through the processing of wastewater in a modern municipal sewage treatment plant?
    1. A body of water
    2. A sanitary landfill
    3. A secondary clarifier
    4. A tract of agricultural land

Self-Test 4

Found in Competency D1, Learning Task 3

Self-Test 4

  1. What is the first step in the planning process for the installation of a residential onsite sewage treatment system?
    1. Perform a soils analysis
    2. Select a dispersal method
    3. Select the treatment method
    4. Gather information from the owner
  2. What is the term used that defines the estimated peak flow that will be discharged to the septic system and for which the system is designed?
    1. Sewage output
    2. Daily design flow
    3. Weekly wastewater
    4. Yearly flow average
  3. Refer to Table II-8. What would be the DDF for a residence that has 4 bedrooms and a living area of 345 m2?
    1. 1300 litres/day
    2. 1345 litres/day
    3. 1600 litres/day
    4. 1645 litres/day
  4. What is to be the increase in the DDF if a garbage grinder or garburator is used?
    1. 50%
    2. 40%
    3. 30%
    4. 5%
  5. Refer to Table II-9. What would be the DDF for a seasonal cottage with 3 bedrooms?
    1. 1312.5 litres/day
    2. 1300 litres/day
    3. 937.5 litres/day
    4. 750 litres/day
  6. Arrange the following criteria in the proper order:
    1. Determine the DDF
    2. Meet with the owner
    3. Select the dispersal method
    4. Select the treatment method

     

    1. 2, 1, 3, 4
    2. 4, 3, 2, 1
    3. 2, 1, 4, 3
    4. 3, 4, 2, 1
  7. What term defines the measure of the volume of effluent, in litres, applied each day, per unit area (m2) of infiltrative surface?
    1. Area of infiltrative surface
    2. Hydraulic loading rate
    3. Vertical separation
    4. Restrictive layer
  8. What term defines a layer of soil, rock, hardpan, glacial rock and unstructured clay soils?
    1. Limiting layer
    2. Blinding layer
    3. Restrictive layer
    4. Vertical separation
  9. What term defines the depth of unsaturated, original, undisturbed permeable soil below the infiltrative surface and above any limiting layer?
    1. Soil horizon
    2. Blinding layer
    3. Infiltrative surface
    4. Vertical separation
  10. What term defines the layers of soil approximately parallel to the land surface and different from adjacent layers in physical, chemical and biological properties?
    1. Soil horizon
    2. Limiting layer
    3. Blinding layer
    4. Vertical separation
  11. What term defines a layer of clean coarse sand or mound sand that is installed between the infiltrative surface and the native soil, and which is up to 10 cm (4 in.) thick?
    1. Limiting layer
    2. Blinding layer
    3. Restrictive layer
    4. Vertical separation
  12. Why is heavy clay not favourable for a disposal field?
    1. Clay is too hard to dig through
    2. The clay will block flow through it
    3. The clay will allow too much flow through it
    4. The clay will stick to tools when trying to excavate
  13. Why is coarse, grainy soil, such as gravel or sand, not favourable for a disposal field?
    1. Flow through it will be too fast
    2. Flow through it will be too slow
    3. There will be no flow through it
    4. Sand and gravel will compact too much
  14. If “NA” is encountered in any of the tables for determining soil conditions for a conventional trench system, what is the expected outcome?
    1. Use a seepage bed system
    2. Double the length of the field piping
    3. Use an above grade system or a lagoon
    4. The soil cannot support the use of any type of dispersal system
  15. What is the expression of the flow rate associated with a percolation test?
    1. Minutes per inch
    2. Minutes per foot
    3. Hours per inch
    4. Hours per foot
  16. Which table from the SPM will determine whether a gravity distribution system is allowed or not allowed?
    1. Table II-5
    2. Table II-6
    3. Table II-7
    4. Table II-21
  17. If soil constraints disallow the use of a gravity or dosed gravity distribution system, which table would provide guidance as to other options for dispersal?
    1. Table II-5
    2. Table II-6
    3. Table II-7
    4. Table II-21
  18. Which of the following determines the length of trenches needed for a dispersal field?
    1. AIS divided by trench width
    2. DDS divided by perc rate
    3. HLR multiplied by DDF
    4. DDS divided by HLR
  19. What is meant by a “separation layer” in a distribution trench?
    1. A layer of sand over the gravel
    2. The cover soil layer over the pipe
    3. The gravel over the unsaturated soil
    4. Lightweight, non-woven geotextile over the gravel
  20. What is the suggested minimum distance between laterals in a typical trench installation?
    1. 3 m
    2. 1.8 m
    3. 1 m
    4. 90 cm
  21. What is the suggested depth of gravel below a lateral in a trench?
    1. No more than 5 cm
    2. More than 15 cm
    3. More than 90 cm
    4. At least 1.8 m
  22. What is the suggested minimum depth of cover soil over a trench?
    1. 5 cm
    2. 15 cm
    3. 90 cm
    4. 1.8 m
  23. What is suggested to be installed at the base of an observation port, to prevent pullout?
    1. Nothing
    2. A coupling
    3. A pipe plug
    4. A toilet flange
  24. What is the suggested maximum width of a trench bottom?
    1. 15 cm
    2. 60 cm
    3. 90 cm
    4. 1.8 m
  25. What are the suggested sizes of pipe for the observation ports?
    1. 2″ or 3″
    2. 3″ or 4″
    3. 4″ or 6″
    4. 6″ or 8″

Self-Test 5

Found in Competency D1, Learning Task 3

Self-Test 5

  1. Which of the following is not a contributor to good septic tank performance?
    1. Larger surface area
    2. Shorter distance between inlet and outlet pipes
    3. Longer distance between inlet and outlet pipes
    4. Smaller, letterbox-sized openings between the first and second compartment
  2. What type of desired flow through a septic tank is achieved using an inlet baffle?
    1. Violent
    2. Turbulent
    3. Quiescent
    4. Excessive
  3. What would be the minimum working volume of a septic tank if the DDF was not > 9100 litres/day?
    1. 1000 litres
    2. 1500 litres
    3. 15000 litres
    4. 3 times the DDF
  4. For 2-compartment tanks, or 2 tanks in series, what does the SPM specify as to the volume of the first tank or compartment?
    1. 100% to 75% of the total working volume
    2. 75% to 50% of the total working volume
    3. 67% to 50% of the total working volume
    4. 50% to 25% of the total working volume
  5. What is the minimum suggested interval between pumpouts for a septic tank?
    1. 1 year
    2. 2 years
    3. 3 years
    4. 5 years
  6. Which of the following is not listed as a reason for the use of a larger tank rather than one of minimum size?
    1. Lower cost of pumpouts over time
    2. Improved oil and grease separation
    3. Improved suspended solids removal
    4. Increased intervals between pumpouts
  7. What is the minimum grade allowable, by most plumbing codes, for a 4-inch building sewer?
    1. [latex]\frac{1}{16}''/\text{ft }\left(\frac{1}{200}\right)[/latex]
    2. [latex]\frac{1}{8}''/\text{ft }\left(\frac{1}{100}\right)[/latex]
    3. [latex]\frac{1}{4}''/\text{ft }\left(\frac{1}{50}\right)[/latex]
    4. [latex]\frac{1}{2}''/\text{ft }\left(\frac{1}{25}\right)[/latex]
  8. How is mandatory venting of a septic tank normally achieved?
    1. By a 2-inch vent at the bottom of the tank
    2. By a 4-inch vent at the top of the tank
    3. Through a vent in the dispersal field
    4. Through the building sewer
  9. What are access “tunnels” from ground level to the septic tank known as?
    1. Drops
    2. Risers
    3. Vaults
    4. Chambers
  10. Within what distance from risers or access lids should components that may need to be periodically checked or maintained be?
    1. 5 cm
    2. 15 cm
    3. 90 cm
    4. 1 m
  11. What is the suggested minimum internal diameter of a riser that is not over 90 cm long?
    1. 15 cm
    2. 50 cm
    3. 76 cm
    4. 90 cm
  12. What is the minimum horizontal separation distance from a septic tank to a domestic water supply well?
    1. 25 ft (7.5 m)
    2. 50 ft (15 m)
    3. 100 ft (30 m)
    4. 200 ft (60 m)
  13. What is the minimum horizontal separation distance from a dispersal system to a drinking water line that is under pressure?
    1. 3 ft (0.9 m)
    2. 10 ft (3 m)
    3. 25 ft (7.5 m)
    4. 50 ft (15 m)
  14. What is the minimum horizontal separation distance between a dispersal system and a lake?
    1. 33 ft (10 m)
    2. 50 ft (15 m)
    3. 100 ft (30 m)
    4. 200 ft (60 m)
  15. What is the minimum horizontal separation distance between a septic tank and a dispersal field lateral?
    1. 0.9 metres (3 feet)
    2. 1.5 metres (5 feet)
    3. 1.8 metres (6 feet)
    4. 3 metres (10 feet)

Self-Test 6

Found in Competency D2, Learning Task 4

Self-Test 6

  1. If, during a water test of a tank, a loss of 10 litres of water was reflected in the water level in the riser dropping 3.5 cm, what size would the riser be?
    1. 46 cm (18 in.)
    2. 61 cm (24 in.)
    3. 76 cm (30 in.)
    4. 91 cm (36 in.)
  2. If a vacuum test is used instead of a water test, what is the expected loss of vacuum within the first 5 minutes?
    1. ½ inch of mercury
    2. 1 inch of mercury
    3. ½ inch of water column
    4. 1 inch of water column
  3. A dosed gravity distribution system should have at least how much of its volume filled on every dose?
    1. 50%
    2. 67%
    3. 75%
    4. 100%
  4. To what minimum height should the water columns in a squirt test rise if the orifices are 4.2 mm [latex]\left(\frac{11}{64}''\right)[/latex] in diameter?
    1. 60 cm (24 in.)
    2. 90 cm (36 in.)
    3. 120 cm (48 in.)
    4. 150 cm (60 in.)
  5. Which of the following must an AP check for during the first 12–14 months of operation of a Type 1 sewerage system?
    1. Fecal coliforms
    2. BOD5 and TSS
    3. Sludge level
    4. Flow
  6. According to the information in Table III-35, what is the suggested pump out frequency for a 4500 litre (1000 Imp. Gal.) septic tank that serves a household occupancy of 4 people?
    1. 3.7 years
    2. 5.2 years
    3. 6.8 years
    4. 8 years
  7. What is the black, jelly-like permeable layer that forms in the soil in the drain field’s trenches known as?
    1. Biomat
    2. Effluent
    3. Field tar
    4. Septic jelly
  8. What effect does the formation of the substance in the previous question have on the flow rate and filtration of viruses and pathogens in the wastewater?
    1. It slows the flow and cuts filtration time down
    2. It speeds the flow and cuts filtration time down
    3. It slows the flow and gives more time for filtration
    4. It speeds the flow and gives more time for filtration
  9. Which of the following would not be a contributor to maintaining a healthy septic field?
    1. Perform routine maintenance
    2. Avoid hydraulic overload
    3. Flush bleach periodically
    4. Maintain filters
  10. Which of the following choices is not listed as a common issue with a malfunctioning septic system?
    1. “Ponding”
    2. Slow fixture drainage
    3. Contaminated drinking water
    4. Frequent dosing pump failure
  11. What causes the corrosion of a concrete septic tank at points at and above the waterline?
    1. The formation of scum
    2. The formation of sludge
    3. The formation of effluent
    4. The formation of hydrochloric acid
  12. Fusion (heat) welding can be a repair used on what type of permanent tank?
    1. Polyethylene
    2. Fiberglass
    3. Concrete
    4. Steel
  13. Why would plastic and fibreglass tanks always need confined space entry procedures followed, whereas concrete tanks may not?
    1. Concrete tanks normally have larger volumes
    2. Fibreglass tanks don’t have harmful atmospheres
    3. Plastic and fibreglass tanks don’t have removeable lids
    4. Plastic tanks are usually removed for periodic inspections
  14. Why are damaged distribution boxes replaced rather than repaired?
    1. Their repair isn’t possible
    2. The SPM mandates replacement
    3. Their cost and size are relatively small
    4. If they are damaged, it is because of their age
  15. What is the process known as, whereby biological (not chemical) additives are introduced into the system to consume excessive biomat that may be clogging the system drainfield piping?
    1. Jolting the system
    2. Shocking the system
    3. Cleaning the system
    4. Eating up the system

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